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Exam Code: AHM-250

Exam Name: Healthcare Management: An Introduction

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Exam Code: AHM-510

Exam Name: Governance and Regulation

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NO.1 According to the IRS, which of the following is not an allowable preventive care service?
A. Smoking cessation programs.
B. Periodic health examinations.
C. Health club memberships.
D. Immunizations for children and adults.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following statements about the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act is WRONG?
A. Employers with more than 15 employees engaged in interstate commerce need to comply
B. Pregnancy Discrimination Act (an amendment to this act) requires health plans to provide
coverage during childbirth and related medical conditions on the same basis as they provide coverage
for other medical conditions
C. Allows HMOs to set different policies for people from different races, religions, sex or national
origin to safeguard their interests.
D. Protects all employees
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is true?
A. A declining economy can lead to lower healthcare costs as a result of an older population with
greater healthcare needs.
B. A larger patient population increases pressure on the health plan to offer larger panels.
C. Provider networks are not affected by the federal and state laws that apply to health plans
D. Network management standards established by independent accrediting organizations have no
influence on health plan network design.
Answer: B

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NO.4 The main purpose of the Health Plan Employer Data and Information Set (HEDIS) is to provide
A. expert consultation to end-users for solving specialized and complex healthcare problems through
the use of a knowledge-based computer system
B. a comprehensive accreditation for PPOs
C. measurements of plan performance and effectiveness that potential healthcare purchasers can use
to compare quality offered by different healthcare plans
D. a mathematical model that can predict future claim payments and premiums
Answer: C

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NO.5 The Military Health System of the Department of Defense offers ongoing healthcare coverage
to military personnel and their families through the
A. Health Care Quality Improvement Program (HCQIP)
B. Health Plan Management System (HPMS)
C. TRICARE healthcare system
D. Health Care Prepayment Plan (HCPP)
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is NOT a requirement for a service to be deemed a
'medically necessary service'?
A. Furnished in the least intensive type of medical care setting required by the member's condition.
B. Solely for the convenience of the member.
C. In accordance with the standards of good medical practice.
D. Consistent with the symptoms of the member's condition.
Answer: B

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NO.7 The Oriole MCO uses a typical diagnosis-related groups (DRGs) payment method to reimburse
the Isle Hospital for its treatment of Oriole members. Under the DRG payment method, whenever an
Oriole member is hospitalized at Isle, Oriole pays Isle
A. an amount based on the weighted value of each medical procedure or service that Isle provides,
and the weighted value is determined by the appropriate current procedural terminology (CPT) code
for the procedure or service
B. a fixed rate based on average expected use of hospital resources in a given geographical area for
that DRG
C. a retrospective reimbursement based on the actual costs of the Oriole member's hospitalization
D. a specific negotiated amount for each day the Oriole member is hospitalized
Answer: B

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NO.8 Bill the member for the balance of the fee above the maximum allowable amount under the fee
schedule reimbursement method
A. UCR fee
B. Capitation fee
C. Balance bill
D. Discounted fee-for-service
Answer: C

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Exam Code: AWS-Solutions-Associate

Exam Name: AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Associate

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Exam Code: AWS-Developer

Exam Name: AWS Certified Developer - Associate

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Picking the right AWS services for the application
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Candidate Overview
Eligible candidates for this exam have:
One or more years of hands-on experience designing and maintaining an AWS-based application
In-depth knowledge of at least one high-level programming language
Understanding of core AWS services, uses, and basic architecture best practices
Proficiency in designing, developing, and deploying cloud-based solutions using AWS
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Exam Code: PR000007

Exam Name: PowerCenter Data Integration 9.x Administrator Specialist

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NO.1 Which PowerCenter service actually runs workflows?
A. Repository service.
B. Integration service.
C. DTM service.
D. Both an Integration service and a Data Integration service.
Answer: B

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Reference:
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NO.2 Which kinds of objects are stored in a PowerCenter Repository?
A. Mapping objects, sources and targets, workflow objects, operating system semaphores.
B. Mapping objects, sources and targets, workflow objects, workflow run information.
C. Source data, sources and targets, workflow objects, workflow run information.
D. Mapping objects, target data, workflow objects, workflow tasks.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What may be gained when registering more than one Integration Service to a single Repository
Service?
A. Performance
B. Reliability
C. Redundancy to facilitate automatic failover
D. Ability to partition the sessions, assuming the partition license option has been purchased
Answer: A

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NO.4 Select the correct statement below regarding nodes
A. Each node must have a hostname set as a property of the node.
B. A minimum of two nodes are required for a running domain, one gateway node and one worker
node.
C. Each node is running a service manager for each service on the node.
D. When a gateway node fails, the domain will shut down.
Answer: C

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NO.5 The Informatica Administrator can be used to do all of these actions except for which one?
A. To create a domain.
B. To shut down a domain.
C. To create a service.
D. To apply a different license key to a service.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement best describes the relationship between system roles and custom roles?
A. System roles cannot be edited and custom roles can be edited.
B. A custom role is created by editing a system role.
C. A custom role is created by copying a system role, renaming it and editing at least one of the
privileges.
D. Any number of custom roles can be created within each system role.
Answer: A

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Reference:https://community.informatica.com/mpresources/docs/Userguide_2787.pdf(page 42)

NO.7 To run a pmcmd command line command and then confirm the command has run successfully,
which method would be used?
A. Read the return code visually or in a shell script or batch file.
B. Check the status of the command in the Workflow Monitor.
C. Run the command from the informatica Administrator and check the status after the command
has completed.
D. Create and configure an Email alert within the workflow Monitor.
Answer: B

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NO.8 When creating a new repository service, a database username (schema) must be specified to
hold the metadata tables
Can the new repository service use a database schema that contains existing repository tables and
objects? Assume you need to preserve the existing objects.
A. No. For a new repository service, the database schema must be empty.
B. No. When the new service is created, existing tables will be automatically dropped.
C. Yes. The tables and objects will be preserved by default.
D. Yes. The user must select the creation option, "Do not create new content.
Answer: C

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NO.1 You upgrade an ESXi 4.x host to an ESXi 5.x host using VMware Update Manager.
It appears to complete the installation, but the system does not boot.
You decide to roll back the host to the previous build.
After using the Shift-R option on boot up, you receive the error "No alternative hypervisor to roll back
to".
What is causing this error?
A. The hardware is not supported with the ESXi 5.x.
B. The ISO file in the baseline is corrupt.
C. The data store containing the operating system has become corrupt.
D. There are differences in the boot loaders between the two versions.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Overnight several virtual machines have triggered alarms for guest memory usage.
What are the proper steps to acknowledge the alarms while investigating the cause?
A. Locate the relevant alarms and reset them.
B. Notify your monitoring team to disable all virtual machine monitoring; reboot all affected virtual
machines and manually monitor their memory usage for the next 60 minutes.
C. Place all affected virtual machines into suspend until the alarms clear on their own.
D. From the Status Bar click the alarm button; select Acknowledge the Alarm.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which three Path Selection Policies (PSP) are available by default in vSphere version 5.1?
(Choose three.)
A. least block
B. fixed
C. Most Recently Used (MRU)
D. CLARiion OPTimized (CLAROPT)
E. round robin (RR)
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.4 A new VLAN has been configured on your Nexus 1000V for VM data traffic on VLAN 202 using
the following commands.
vlan 202 name datavlan-202 port-profile type vethernet VM-DATA-202 vmware port-group
switchport mode access switchport access vlan 202 no shutdown max-ports 512 state enabled
After deploying a virtual machine on the new VLAN, connectivity outside of this network does not
appear to work.
Which action will resolve the problem?
A. Apply the system VLAN attribute.
B. Use the switchport mode trunk command.
C. Add VLAN to the uplink port-profile configuration.
D. Increase default port count.
Answer: C

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NO.5 The CIO of your organization requests an audit of all user logins to vCenter with the
vSphere client.
Which action will allow you to provide this information?
A. Run the event_export.sql script in SQL Management Studio on the vCenter database.
B. Connect the vSphere client to the syslog virtual machine and export events.
C. Connect the vSphere client to vCenter and export events.
D. Use the vm-support command on the ESXi host to generate the log bundle.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You would like to upgrade Update Manager and keep your current database.
What will allow you to meet this requirement?
A. Upgrade the Update Manager plug-in prior to upgrading the Update Manager Server.
B. During the upgrade process, a backup of the Update Manager database will be taken
automatically.
C. Within the Update Manager plug-in, backup the existing Update Manager database.
D. During the upgrade process, make a backup of the existing Update Manager database.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which operating system requires additional binaries to apply virtual machine customization
A. Microsoft Windows 2008
B. Microsoft Windows 7
C. Microsoft Windows 2003
D. Red Hat Linux
Answer: C

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NO.8 A vApp has been deployed with the wrong IP address information and must be updated. You
have logged into the virtual machine, and updated the static IP address from the console, validating
connectivity. After a system reboot, users are no longer able to connect to the system.
What is the problem?
A. The IP configuration should take place in the vApp container.
B. vApps require DHCP assigned addresses instead of static.
C. The segment ID was incorrectly configured for the VXLAN.
D. The IP configuration should take place in the vSwitch layer.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 210-015

Exam Name: VCE Vblock System Deployment and Implementation - Virtualization

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Exam Code: 220-010

Exam Name: VCE Vblock Systems Administration

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Exam Name: CSQA Certified Software Quality Analyst

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NO.1 Doing the right thing, doing it the right way, doing it right the first time, and doing it on time
without exceeding cost would be characteristics of the:
A. Producer's view of quality
B. Customer's view of quality
C. Supplier's view of quality
Answer: A

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NO.2 QA is a management function with emphasis on the process producing the product.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.3 According to quality experts, the most effective way to implement quality practices is:
A. Top-down - management is the driver
B. Bottom-up - workers put in good quality practices
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which answer below is NOT one of the seven steps for implementing an IT quality function?
A. Develop a charter
B. Identify a quality manager
C. Staff and train the quality function
D. Audit the use of quality tools
E. Build support for quality
Answer: D

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NO.5 A Standard states:
A. What
B. When
C. Where
D. Why
Answer: A

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NO.6 A standard must be measurable, attainable, and necessary. What is meant by 'attainable' in
this context?
A. Given current resources and time frame; the standard can reasonably be complied with every
time.
B. Given current resources; the standard can reasonably be complied within this time frame.
C. Given current time frame; the standard can reasonably be complied with given resources.
D. Given current resources and time frame; the standard can reasonably be complied with in this
cycle.
Answer: A

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NO.7 There are two systems in every business application. The first is the system that ___________
business transactions, and the second is the system that _________ the processing of business
transactions.
A. Interfaces, Activities
B. Combines, Activities
C. Processes, Controls
D. Controls, Processing
Answer: C

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NO.8 If a software project produced over 100 defects, would you state:
A. The project was poorly implemented
B. The project implemented was acceptable
C. You do not have enough information to state an opinion
D. The project is not under statistical control
Answer: C

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NO.1 Review the following screenshot. In the Miscellaneous Item section, the user can wnter several
item name. The entered value are storen in Items property. Which type of property is this?
A. Single Value
B. Value
C. Page List
D. Page
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which UI component should you use to format the presentation of a property's value?
A. Inline Style Editor
B. Function rule
C. Section
D. Control rule
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the effect of setting a rule availability to "Withdrawn"? (Choose Two)
A. It prevents the rule from being chosen by rule resolution
B. It prevents older versions of the same rule from being chosen by rule resolution
C. It presents an error to the operator if the rule is chosen by rule resolution
D. It prevents the rule from being copied
E. It prevents further edits of the rule
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Abstract classes are used to create abstract work items.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 Data pages can be populated from a: (Choose Two)
A. Report definition
B. Local list defined in a property
C. Data transform
D. Drop down list
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 During which part of the DCO process does draft UI generation occur? (Choose One)
A. Construction
B. Inception
C. Initiation
D. Elaboration
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which control should you use to implement the functionality demonstrated in this example?
A. Dropdown sourced by a data page that can filter choices based on selection
B. AutoComplete
C. Dynamic Select
D. Dropdown sourced by a local list
Answer: C

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NO.8 IN the application, the email consumption leads to case creation & then the fetching prices
from price catalogue, application connects to external system (wording can be different)
A. PRPC act as service for fetching price from price catalogue.
B. PRPC act as connector for fetching price from price catalogue
C. PRPC act as service for creating case from email
D. PRPC act as connector for fetching price from price catalogue.
E. PRPC can act as neither service or connector for fetching price from price catalogue.
F. PRPC can act as neither service or connector for creating case from email.
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: PEGACSA71V1

Exam Name: Certified System Architect (CSA) 71V1

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Exam Code: C2210-403

Exam Name: IBM Forms 8.0 - Form Design and Development

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NO.1 Which statement below best describes XFDL functions?
A. XFDL functions provide a way to perform complex calculations.
B. XFDL functions can be extended via User-Defined functions.
C. XFDL functions provide out-of-the-box functionality via two packages: viewer and system.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the statements below describes a benefit of XFDL?
A. XFDL simplifies HTML programming.
B. XFDL makes pre-populating form data easier because of its code level engine.
C. XFDL future-proofs electronic forms as they are in human-readable XML.
D. XFDL documents can be rendered by any word processing software.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is the best practice to set a IBM Forms data element as read only?
A. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" readonly="true()"/>
B. <field sid="birthdate"><readonly>on</readonly></field>
C. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" readonly="true"/>
D. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" properties="readonly"/>
Answer: A

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NO.4 When calling one of the functions contained within the Viewer IFX, all of the following
statements
are true EXCEPT which one?
A. You must add the 'viewer' prefix to the function call.
B. Viewer functions only work when using the Viewer.
C. There is a function within the Viewer IFX to display a message box.
D. Viewer functions can be called from XForms actions.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Where can spell checking for the Designer be enabled or disabled?
A. In the Spell Check section of the Forms Designer heading in the Preferences.
B. On the file system, by removing or replacing the dictionary files in the Designer's install folder.
C. In the global form properties dialog.
D. From the Preferences dialog opened from the Viewer's toolbar.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Jane is designing a form with three pages. Pages one and two are built with a wizard style
interface, and page three is meant only for printing. How can Jane setup her form so that when
the form is printed, only page three prints?
A. Jane should only put a print button on page three, then it will be the only one that shows up
when the form is printed.
B. Jane must break up her form into two separate forms: one for the wizard and one for printing.
C. Jane can set theprint settingsproperty of page three to 'on', andprint settingsproperty for pages
one and two to 'off'.
D. Jane would create a "keep" filter, specifying page three as the only page to print.
Answer: D

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NO.7 How is an XForms submission handled by the Translator Server?
A. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
B. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
C. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
D. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the default namespace prefix for an IBM Form?
A. xmlns:xforms
B. xmlns:default
C. xmlns:custom
D. xmlns:xfdl
Answer: D

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C2210-928 Exam PDF, M2150-753 Exam PDF, M2090-744 Test Questions

Upon completion of the recommended test preparation materials, you are ready to take the software sales mastery test.
Please see sales mastery test policy for important information on non-proctored online test retake policy and test registration/cancellation policies.
Skill name:  IBM Security Trusteer Web Fraud Partner Sales Professional v1
PartnerWorld skill code:  32016308
Your sales training should not end here. IBM encourages you to deepen your sales skills by attending additional seminars, teleconferences, self-paced study, etc. Refer to the IBM PartnerWorld Training and Certification page.
* Passing this test counts towards PartnerWorld Premier and Advanced membership levels. It also entitles you to use the mastery qualification title on your business card.  This test meets the sales skill criteria for the Software Value Incentive/Software Value Plus.

Test information
Number of questions: 20
Time allowed in minutes: 30
Required passing score: 75%
Languages: English, German, Spanish Castilian

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Exam Code: C2210-928

Exam Name: Developing Websites Using IBM Web Content Manager 8.0

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C2210-928 Exam Cost Total Q&A: 91 Questions and Answers

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Exam Code: M2150-753

Exam Name: IBM Security Trusteer Web Fraud Partner Sales Mastery Test v1

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Exam Code: M2090-744

Exam Name: IBM DB2 BLU/Cloud Sales Mastery v1

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C2210-422 Real Questions, C2050-725 Braindumps, M2090-748 Exam Prep

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Exam Code: C2210-422

Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Portal 8.5 System Administration Core B

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Exam Code: C2050-725

Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Commerce V7 (FEP 7), Application Development

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Exam Code: M2090-748

Exam Name: IBM MDM and IIS Sales Mastery Test v1

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NO.1 Which two fields are optional when creating a virtual portal using the Virtual Portal Manager?
(Choose two.)
A. the title for the new virtual portal
B. a host name for the virtual portal
C. a description of the new virtual portal
D. the initial sub-administrator user group for the virtual portal
E. the default theme that is applied to the pages of the virtual portal
Answer: B,C

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Reference:
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NO.2 John wants to know how the Garbage Collector of his portal works. Which set of embedded
tools can he use?
A. Portal Monitoring Interface
B. Garbage Collector Analysis
C. Performance GC Collections
D. Performance Monitoring Infrastructure
Answer: A

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NO.3 Winston's application includes both a custom login portlet and custom authentication filters.
During tests, he requests protected content and observes a pop-up that prompts for his user ID and
password instead of seeing the expected custom login portlet.
What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The HTTP Basic Authentication Trust Association Interceptor was configured incorrectly.
B. The wps.Login unique name is not assigned to the page that contains the custom login portlet.
C. The wps.ear security constraint in web.xml was not updated to direct requests to the custom login
portlet.
D. The custom authentication filter was configured on the Implicit Login rather than on the Explicit
Login filter chain.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What happens when the Security Cache times out?
A. The LTPA Token must be recreated.
B. The user will be asked to log in again.
C. The Security Cache will refresh from the new LTPA Token.
D. The Security Cache will refresh from the LTPA Token when using SSO
Answer: C

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Reference: http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg21078845

NO.5 What is the method to change the language of a library?
A. Delete the library, and then, recreate it with the desired language.
B. In the Web Content Libraries portlet, edit the library, and then, select the desired language.
C. Run the ConfigEngine change-library-language -Dlibrary=<library_name>task.
D. In the Authoring Portlet. click Edit Shared Settings, select the library, and choose the desired
language.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Sam was asked by a developer to import a page into an existing portal. When he attempts to do
it, the portal reports that it cannot find the item with objectid Z1_MO041380KON2C0A44B4D952004.
In the XML input, he sees the statement:
<web-app action="locate" domain="rel" objectid=,,Zl_MO041380KON2C0A44B4D952004"
uid="challengeportlet.ChallengePortlet.fa864d2244.webmod">
What can he conclude?
A. The developer must remove this part from the XML.
B. The wrong action is on the web-app. It must be export.
C. The portlet that Z1_MO041380KON2C0A44B4D952004 defines is not yet installed.
D. He should try to import it again, as it is a two-step process to install a portlet and to update a page.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Frank recently tuned the heap size of the IBM WebSphere Portal servers in his environment.
Which event should he monitor to ensure that the tuning is working?
A. that garbage collection takes less than 10% of the time
B. that garbage collection takes more than 20% of the time
C. that no native exceptions occur during the WebSphere Portal server bootstrap
D. that an OutOfMemoryError, if present in the SystemOut.log. does not appear more than twice in a
24-hour period
Answer: C

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NO.8 John purchased a version of IBM WebSphere Portal that includes IBM Web Content Manager.
How are the Web Content Manager authoring and web content viewer portlets installed for the first
time?
A. Run theconfigure-wcm-authoring task.
B. The authoring and web content portlets are installed by default.
C. Enable authoring options in the WCMConfigService service by using the IBM WebSphere
Integrated Solutions Console.
D. Select the Web Content Manager feature in Portal Install options when installing WebSphere
Portal from the IBM Installation Manager.
Answer: C

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C2210-927 Test Questions, C2210-924 Practice Exam

NO.1 Paul has been working on a project that is being deployed in two different versions of IBM
WebSphere Portal at his company. As a result, he needs to be able to test his code with both
runtimes. How does he switch from one runtime to another?
A. Right-click on the module in the Project Explorer view and click Properties > Project Facets.
The Project Facets page opens. Select the Runtimes tab. Under the Runtimes table, select the target
servers for the module.
B. Open the .bowstreet file for the project and modify the runtimes element to include the new
WebSphere Portal version.
C. Open web.xml and add a new runtime element under server runtime for the new WebSphere
Portal version.
D. Create a new server configuration for the project and assign it as the default for the project.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Ming has created a form using a Input Form builder that has 16 fields to complete, but all are
very small. He wants to organize the fields in two columns on the page. How can he easily
accomplish this task?
A. Use a News Columns builder and enter 2 in the number of columns.
B. Edit the HTML template to form two columns with the DataEntryField element.
C. Modify the default Input Form base page to organize the fields into two columns..
D. Drop a Layout Column from the palette onto the group element in the Design view. Drag to
arrange the fields as desired.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Page automation is a set of builders that facilitate the automatic display of data based on
metadata. What are the basic steps of page automation?
A. Receive data in a Data Page builder, examine the data, enrich the data.
B. Receive data in a Data page builder, modify the schema, apply modifiers.
C. Set up a data provider model, create a consumer model, select the highest level page automation
builder that fits the requirement, customize the generated UI to the requirements.
D. Examine received data in the context of a View and Form builder, build a presentation for the
data, document the schema.
Answer: C

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NO.4 John is trying to wire two IBM Web Experience Factory portlets that reside on different IBM
WebSphere Portal pages. What option will give him the best approach?
A. Wiring of two Web Experience Factory portlets on two different pages is technically not feasible.
B. Wire the two portlets together using the shared variable builder so they can share data via
session.
C. Use the Web Experience Factory Event Declaration and Event Handler builder with page wiring
option available within the builder.
D. Use the Cooperative Portlet Source and Cooperative Portlet Target builders with WebSphere
Portal's wiring tool.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Christine needs to make an AJAX call to a method named "getAddress" in her model. How
would she get the URL to the method in a Client JavaScript builder?
A. <%=webAppAccess.getBackchannelURL("getAddress", false)%>
B. <%=webAppAccess.getBackchannelActionURL("getAddress", false)%>
C. <%=webAppAccess.getActionURL("getAddress", false)%>
D. <%=webAppAccess.getAjaxURL("getAddress", false)%>
Answer: B

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NO.6 Jonathan would like to document all his service provider models at once. How can he
approach this task?
A. Add a Comment builder before each SQL call.
B. Use the Service Definition builders in each one, generating comments for each.
C. Use the WebApp Documentation builder, specifying Services as the report parameter.
D. Use the Service Documentation Builder, specifying all service models and the report type.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Quincy has created an Imported Page from an existing HTML form. Now he would like to add
navigation on some of its HTML elements. How does he approach this task?
A. Add HTML builders for each HTML element.
B. Add Variable builders for each HTML element.
C. Add action control builders, such as Button or Link builders for each HTML element.
D. Add an Imported Page Collection builder to use all HTML elements at once, specifying their
indirect references in the element input table.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Heinrich has 35 builder calls in a model. If he wants to see the XML relevant to one specific
builder call in the model, how should he find it?
A. Right-click the builder call and select View XML.
B. Open the Model XML model view, then search for the builder call by its ID name.
C. Open the Builder Call Editor model view, and click Generate XML at the bottom.
D. Open the Model XML model view, then click the builder call in the builder call list.
Answer: D

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• Time allowed in minutes: 75
  
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NO.1 Your customer wants to implement additional pricing terms with the flexibility to turn them on
and off.
How do you implement this requirement with regards to an optimized performance?
A. Implement routines using transaction VOFM.
B. Implement a user exit using transaction SMOD.
C. Implement a copy control using transaction VTAA in the access sequence.
D. Implement a routine using transaction SE80 to replace the pricing procedure.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Trading goods should be processed in a distribution center without stock posting.
Which approach do you recommend?
A. Cross Docking: The goods are brought from goods receipt directly to goods issue.
B. Radio Frequency Identification: The goods are picked and packed contact free.
C. Lean Warehouse Management: The goods are transferred exclusively without goods receipt and
goods issue stock.
D. Yard Management: The goods are excluded from being stored, because of high transparency in
stocks.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your customer has implemented a manual order-to-cash process. What is required to automate
order creation and processing?
A. Set up EDI input handling and automate background jobs.
B. Implement a user exit and automate copy control.
C. Set up EDI input handling and automate pricing.
D. Automate background jobs and copy control.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A system user can execute a certain set of SAP queries and requires running another existing
query.
How do you enable the request?
A. Assign the appropriate authorization to the user.
B. Assign the user to the respective user group.
C. Assign the user to the respective query.
D. Assign the appropriate authorization to the respective user group.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Your customer is regularly facing long time periods between the creation of the delivery and
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export data in export invoices.
What is a possible solution?
A. Activate customer BAdI in the invoice.
B. Configure standard copy control.
C. Define commodity codes.
D. Enable direct billing type access to the material export data.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which elements in an SAP application can be personalized?
A. Print parameters and application help
B. Universal Worklist and print parameters
C. Universal Worklist and system time
D. Application help and system time
Answer: B

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NO.7 Sales documents are extracted from SAP ERP to SAP BW using the Logistics Cockpit. How do you
ensure that only changed documents are extracted?
A. Implement a User Exit.
B. Activate the supplied Business Add-In.
C. This requirement is met by standard functionality.
D. Reduce the frequency of extracts for sales, billing, and delivery documents.
Answer: C

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NO.8 A company wants to implement an inter-company process for their different plants. What
change in the enterprise structure is essential?
A. Assign the delivering plants to the selling sales organization.
B. Create a new company code to combine the different plants.
C. Assign the selling sales organization to a new company code.
D. Create new shipping points for the delivering plants.
Answer: A

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